Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50
E0A07: How may dangerous levels of carbon monoxide from an emergency generator be detected?
By the odor
Only with a carbon monoxide detector
Any ordinary smoke detector can be used
By the yellowish appearance of the gas
E1A10: If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?
Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft
The amateur station operator must agree to not transmit when the main ship or aircraft radios are in use
It must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply
Its operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license
E1B03: Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference?
E1C05: When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications?
Only when transmitting an RTTY or data emissions
When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations
When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration
E1D10: Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations?
Any amateur station designated by NASA
Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
Any amateur station so designated by the ITU
All of these choices are correct
E1E01: What is the minimum number of qualified VEs required to administer an Element 4 amateur operator license examination?
E1F11: Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?
It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power
It must be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks
It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range
It must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when operated at the lesser of 1500 watts, or its full output power
E2A12: What is one way to predict the location of a satellite at a given time?
By means of the Doppler data for the specified satellite
By subtracting the mean anomaly from the orbital inclination
By adding the mean anomaly to the orbital inclination
By calculations using the Keplerian elements for the specified satellite
E2B01: How many times per second is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?
E2C08: Why are received spread-spectrum signals resistant to interference?
Signals not using the spectrum-spreading algorithm are suppressed in the receiver
The high power used by a spread-spectrum transmitter keeps its signal from being easily overpowered
The receiver is always equipped with a digital blanker circuit
If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
E2D06: Which of the following is a commonly used 2-meter APRS frequency?
E2E12: Which type of digital communication does not support keyboard-to-keyboard operation?
E3A01: What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by Moon bounce?
500 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
2000 miles, if the Moon is at apogee
5000 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
12,000 miles, as long as both can "see" the Moon
E3B04: What type of propagation is probably occurring if an HF beam antenna must be pointed in a direction 180 degrees away from a station to receive the strongest signals?
E3C02: What is the cause of Aurora activity?
The interaction between the solar wind and the Van Allen belt
A low sunspot level combined with tropospheric ducting
The interaction of charged particles from the Sun with the Earth's magnetic field and the ionosphere
Meteor showers concentrated in the northern latitudes
E4A07: Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR?
Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance
Antenna analyzers do not need an external RF source
Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope
All of these choices are correct
E4B10: Which of the following describes a method to measure intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter?
Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related radio frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
Modulate the transmitter with two harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a peak reading wattmeter
Modulate the transmitter with two harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a logic analyzer
E4C05: What does a value of -174 dBm/Hz represent with regard to the noise floor of a receiver?
The minimum detectable signal as a function of receive frequency
The theoretical noise at the input of a perfect receiver at room temperature
The noise figure of a 1 Hz bandwidth receiver
The galactic noise contribution to minimum detectable signal
E4D04: Which of the following may reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by another transmitter operating in close proximity?
A band-pass filter in the feed line between the transmitter and receiver
A properly terminated circulator at the output of the transmitter
A Class C final amplifier
A Class D final amplifier
E4E08: What type of signal is picked up by electrical wiring near a radio antenna?
A common-mode signal at the frequency of the radio transmitter
An electrical-sparking signal
A differential-mode signal at the AC power line frequency
Harmonics of the AC power line frequency
E5A04: What is the magnitude of the impedance of a circuit with a resistor, an inductor and a capacitor all in parallel, at resonance?
Approximately equal to circuit resistance
Approximately equal to inductive reactance
Low, as compared to the circuit resistance
Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
E5B10: What is the relationship between the current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor?
Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
Voltage and current are in phase
E5C23: Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor, a 0.64-microhenry inductor and an 85-picofarad capacitor at 24.900 MHz?
E5D06: In what direction is the magnetic field oriented about a conductor in relation to the direction of electron flow?
In the same direction as the current
In a direction opposite to the current
In all directions; omnidirectional
In a direction determined by the left-hand rule
E6A17: What are the names of the three terminals of a field-effect transistor?
Gate 1, gate 2, drain
Emitter, base, collector
Emitter, base 1, base 2
Gate, drain, source
E6B12: What is one common use for PIN diodes?
As a constant current source
As a constant voltage source
As an RF switch
As a high voltage rectifier
E6C02: What logic state do the inputs of a TTL device assume if they are left open?
A logic-high state
A logic-low state
The device becomes randomized and will not provide consistent high or low-logic states
Open inputs on a TTL device are ignored
E6D03: Which of the following is true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)?
Its phase shift changes rapidly with frequency
It is a CMOS analog-to-digital converter
It samples an analog signal and passes it in stages from the input to the output
It is used in a battery charger circuit
E6E11: Which of the following materials is likely to provide the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?
E6F01: What is photoconductivity?
The conversion of photon energy to electromotive energy
The increased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor
The conversion of electromotive energy to photon energy
The decreased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor
E7A14: What is a JK flip-flop?
A flip-flop similar to an RS except that it toggles when both J and K are high
A flip-flop utilizing low power, low temperature Joule-Kelvin devices
A flip-flop similar to a D flip-flop except that it triggers on the negative clock edge
A flip-flop originally developed in Japan and Korea which has very low power consumption
E7B09: Which of the following describes how the loading and tuning capacitors are to be adjusted when tuning a vacuum tube RF power amplifier that employs a pi-network output circuit?
The loading capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the tuning capacitor is adjusted for minimum allowable plate current
The tuning capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the loading capacitor is adjusted for minimum plate permissible current
The loading capacitor is adjusted to minimum plate current while alternately adjusting the tuning capacitor for maximum allowable plate current
The tuning capacitor is adjusted for minimum plate current, while the loading capacitor is adjusted for maximum permissible plate current
E7C11: Which of the following is the common name for a filter network which is equivalent to two L networks connected back-to-back with the inductors in series and the capacitors in shunt at the input and output?
E7D02: What is one characteristic of a switching electronic voltage regulator?
The resistance of a control element is varied in direct proportion to the line voltage or load current
It is generally less efficient than a linear regulator
The control device's duty cycle is controlled to produce a constant average output voltage
It gives a ramp voltage at its output
E7E12: What is a frequency discriminator stage in a FM receiver?
An FM generator circuit
A circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals
An automatic band-switching circuit
A circuit for detecting FM signals
E7F08: Which of the following is performed by a frequency counter?
Determining the frequency deviation with an FM discriminator
Mixing the incoming signal with a WWV reference
Counting the number of input pulses occurring within a specific period of time
Converting the phase of the measured signal to a voltage which is proportional to the frequency
E7G03: Which of the following is an advantage of using an op-amp instead of LC elements in an audio filter?
Op-amps are more rugged
Op-amps are fixed at one frequency
Op-amps are available in more varieties than are LC elements
Op-amps exhibit gain rather than insertion loss
E7H10: What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital frequency synthesizer?
The phase relationship between a reference oscillator and the output waveform
The amplitude values that represent a sine-wave output
The phase relationship between a voltage-controlled oscillator and the output waveform
The synthesizer frequency limits and frequency values stored in the radio memories
E8A08: What is the period of a wave?
The time required to complete one cycle
The number of degrees in one cycle
The number of zero crossings in one cycle
The amplitude of the wave
E8B03: What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency, when the modulating frequency is 1000 Hz?
E8C02: What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?
Baudot uses four data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot uses one character as a shift code, ASCII has no shift code
Baudot uses five data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot uses two characters as shift codes, ASCII has no shift code
Baudot uses six data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot has no shift code, ASCII uses two characters as shift codes
Baudot uses seven data bits per character, ASCII uses eight; Baudot has no shift code, ASCII uses two characters as shift codes
E8D15: Which of the following is a typical value for the RMS voltage at a standard U.S. household electrical power outlet?
E9A03: Which of the following antennas has no gain in any direction?
E9B03: In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-side ratio?
E9C04: Which of the following describes a basic unterminated rhombic antenna?
Unidirectional; four-sides, each side one quarter-wavelength long; terminated in a resistance equal to its characteristic impedance
Bidirectional; four-sides, each side one or more wavelengths long; open at the end opposite the transmission line connection
Four-sides; an LC network at each corner except for the transmission connection;
Four-sides, each of a different physical length
E9D05: Where should a high-Q loading coil be placed to minimize losses in a shortened vertical antenna?
Near the center of the vertical radiator
As low as possible on the vertical radiator
As close to the transmitter as possible
At a voltage node
E9E10: Which of these choices is an effective way to match an antenna with a 100-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line?
Connect a 1/4-wavelength open stub of 300-ohm twin-lead in parallel with the coaxial feed line where it connects to the antenna
Insert a 1/2 wavelength piece of 300-ohm twin-lead in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable
Insert a 1/4-wavelength piece of 75-ohm coaxial cable transmission line in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable
Connect 1/2 wavelength shorted stub of 75-ohm cable in parallel with the 50-ohm cable where it attaches to the antenna
E9F15: What impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?
Very high impedance
Very low impedance
The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
The same as the output impedance of the generator
E9G07: On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?
The reactance axis
The current axis
The voltage axis
The resistance axis
E9H12: What is an advantage of using a shielded loop antenna for direction finding?
It automatically cancels ignition noise pickup in mobile installations
It is electro-statically balanced against ground, giving better nulls
It eliminates tracking errors caused by strong out-of-band signals
It allows stations to communicate without giving away their position