E0A06: Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) field MPE limits?

The body reacts to electromagnetic radiation from both the E and H fields

Ground reflections and scattering make the field impedance vary with location

E field and H field radiation intensity peaks can occur at different locations

E1A02: When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the lowest frequency at which a properly adjusted LSB emission will be totally within the band?

The exact lower band edge

300 Hz above the lower band edge

1 kHz above the lower band edge

E1B08: What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receiver(s) involved are of good engineering design?

The amateur station must cease operation

The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies below 30 MHz

The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies above 30 MHz

E1C07: What is meant by local control?

Controlling a station through a local auxiliary link

Automatically manipulating local station controls

Controlling a repeater using a portable handheld transceiver

E1D04: What is an Earth station in the amateur satellite service?

An amateur station that is not able to communicate using amateur satellites

An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurement of upper atmosphere data from space

Any amateur station on the surface of the Earth

E1E04: Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process?

Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted

The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau

The prospective VE obtains accreditation from the FCC

E1F03: Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?

The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit

It was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not require certification of RF power amplifiers

It was imported from a manufacturer in another country, and it was certificated by that country's government

E2A06: On what band would a satellite receive signals if it were operating in mode U/V?

144-146 MHz

50.0-50.2 MHz

29.5 to 29.7 MHz

E2B01: How many times per second is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?

60

90

120

E2C09: How does the spread-spectrum technique of frequency hopping work?

If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies

If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear

A pseudo-random binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a particular sequence

E2D02: What is the definition of baud?

The number of characters transmitted per second

The number of characters transmitted per minute

The number of words transmitted per minute

E2E05: How does ARQ accomplish error correction?

Special binary codes provide automatic correction

Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction

If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted

E3A01: What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by Moon bounce?

500 miles, if the Moon is at perigee

2000 miles, if the Moon is at apogee

5000 miles, if the Moon is at perigee

E3B10: What is the cause of gray-line propagation?

At midday, the Sun being directly overhead superheats the ionosphere causing increased refraction of radio waves

In darkness, solar absorption drops greatly while atmospheric ionization remains steady

At mid afternoon, the Sun heats the ionosphere decreasing radio wave refraction and the MUF

E3C12: How does the maximum distance of ground-wave propagation change when the signal frequency is increased?

It stays the same

It increases

It peaks at roughly 14 MHz

E4A05: Which of the following test instruments is used to display intermodulation distortion products in an SSB transmission?

A wattmeter

A logic analyzer

A time-domain reflectometer

E4B07: Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe?

Never use a high impedance probe to measure a low impedance circuit

Never use a DC-coupled probe to measure an AC circuit

All of these choices are correct

E4C13: How does a narrow-band roofing filter affect receiver performance?

It improves sensitivity by reducing front end noise

It improves intelligibility by using low Q circuitry to reduce ringing

All of these choices are correct

E4D02: Which of the following describes two problems caused by poor dynamic range in a communications receiver?

Oscillator instability requiring frequent retuning and loss of ability to recover the opposite sideband

Cross-modulation of the desired signal and insufficient audio power to operate the speaker

Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest received signals

E4E13: What might be the cause of a loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference that comes and goes at intervals?

Arcing contacts in a thermostatically controlled device

A defective doorbell or doorbell transformer inside a nearby residence

A malfunctioning illuminated advertising display

E5A11: What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150?

157.8 Hz

315.6 Hz

23.67 kHz

E5B06: How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to 294 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is connected across it?

4.50 seconds

9 seconds

900 seconds

E5C09: When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what does the horizontal axis represent?

Reactive component

The sum of the reactive and resistive components

The difference between the resistive and reactive components

E5D18: How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.71 if the apparent power is 500 VA?

704 W

252 W

1.42 mW

E6A09: What is a depletion-mode FET?

An FET that has no current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied

Any FET without a channel

Any FET for which holes are the majority carriers

E6B08: Which of the following describes a type of semiconductor diode?

Electrolytic rectifier

CMOS-field effect

Thermionic emission diode

E6C06: Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity to noise on the input signal or power supply?

Larger bypass capacitors are used in CMOS circuit design

The input switching threshold is about two times the power supply voltage

Input signals are stronger

E6D13: What type of CRT deflection is better when high-frequency waveforms are to be displayed on the screen?

Electromagnetic

Tubular

Radar

E6E06: What characteristics of the MMIC make it a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits?

The ability to retrieve information from a single signal even in the presence of other strong signals.

Plate current that is controlled by a control grid

Nearly infinite gain, very high input impedance, and very low output impedance

E6F04: What is the photovoltaic effect?

The conversion of voltage to current when exposed to light

The conversion of electrical energy to mechanical energy

The tendency of a battery to discharge when used outside

E7A07: What logical operation does a NAND gate perform?

It produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "0"

It produces a logic "1" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"

It produces a logic "0" at its output if some but not all of its inputs are logic "1"

E7B16: What is the effect of intermodulation products in a linear power amplifier?

Creation of parasitic oscillations

Low efficiency

All of these choices are correct

E7C04: How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?

It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance

It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance

Network resistances are substituted for load resistances and reactances are matched to the resistances

E7D07: What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

It is a brute force filter for the output

To self-resonate at the hum frequency

To provide fixed DC bias for Q1

E7E11: Which of the following types of detector is well suited for demodulating SSB signals?

Discriminator

Phase detector

Phase comparator

E7F06: What is one purpose of a marker generator?

To add audio markers to an oscilloscope

To provide a frequency reference for a phase locked loop

To add time signals to a transmitted signal

E7G13: What is meant by the term op-amp input-offset voltage?

The output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage

The differential input voltage needed to bring the open-loop output voltage to zero

The potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp in an open-loop condition

E7H03: How is positive feedback supplied in a Hartley oscillator?

Through a capacitive divider

Through link coupling

Through a neutralizing capacitor

E8A03: What type of wave is made up of sine waves of a given fundamental frequency plus all its harmonics?

A square wave

A sine wave

A cosine wave

E8B04: What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz when modulated with a 2-kHz modulating frequency?

6000

2000

1/3

E8C10: What spread-spectrum communications technique alters the center frequency of a conventional carrier many times per second in accordance with a pseudo-random list of channels?

Direct sequence

Time-domain frequency modulation

Frequency compandored spread-spectrum

E8D08: Which of the following best describes electromagnetic waves traveling in free space?

Electric and magnetic fields become aligned as they travel

The energy propagates through a medium with a high refractive index

The waves are reflected by the ionosphere and return to their source

E9A15: What is meant by the radiation resistance of an antenna?

The combined losses of the antenna elements and feed line

The specific impedance of the antenna

The resistance in the atmosphere that an antenna must overcome to be able to radiate a signal

E9B01: In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the 3-dB beamwidth?

75 degrees

25 degrees

30 degrees

E9C06: What is the effect of a terminating resistor on a rhombic antenna?

It reflects the standing waves on the antenna elements back to the transmitter

It changes the radiation pattern from horizontal to vertical polarization

It decreases the ground loss

E9D12: What is one advantage of using a trapped antenna?

It has high directivity in the higher-frequency bands

It has high gain

It minimizes harmonic radiation

E9E01: What system matches a high-impedance transmission line to a lower impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two places spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element center?

The gamma matching system

The omega matching system

The stub matching system

E9F08: What is the term for the ratio of the actual speed at which a signal travels through a transmission line to the speed of light in a vacuum?

Characteristic impedance

Surge impedance

Standing wave ratio

E9G09: What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of solving problems?

Antenna-length circles

Coaxial-length circles

Radiation-pattern circles

E9H12: What is an advantage of using a shielded loop antenna for direction finding?

It automatically cancels ignition noise pickup in mobile installations

It eliminates tracking errors caused by strong out-of-band signals

It allows stations to communicate without giving away their position